| Word | Meaning | Synonyms | Antonyms |
| Abysmal | Adj. Bottomless Use : His arrogance is exceeded only by his abysmal ignorance | Terrible, awful, dreadful, appalling, very bad, | Superb |
| acronym | n. A word formed by the initial letters of a multi-word name | Contraction, ellipsis, | |
| admonish | v. warn strongly, reprove Use: He admonished his listeners to change their wicked ways | Reprove, reprimand, chide, rebuke, usurp | Approve |
| Circumspect | v. Investigation before acting, Use: She tried always to be circumspect | Cutious, prudent, careful, guarded, wary, judicious, vigilant, | reckless |
| Conciliation | n. the act of placating | Appeasement, pacification, propitiation | Incitement |
| Connotation | n. Suggested or implied meaning of an expression. Use: Foreigners frequently are unaware of the connotations of the words they use. | Nuance, suggestion, implication, undertone, overtone, subtext, | |
| covert | Adj. secret or hidden, not openly practiced or vowed n. a covering that serves to conceal or shelter something Use: Investigations of CIA reveal that such covert operations can get out of control | Clandestine, concealed, stealthy, underground, copse, wood, thicket | Open |
| Covetous | Adj. avaricious, eagerly desirous of Use: The child was covetous by nature and wanted to take the toys belonging to his classmates | envious, jealous, desirous, greedy | Generous, temperate |
| Deprecate | v. express disapproval of, protest against, belittle Use: A firm believer of old-fashioned courtesy, Miss Post, deprecated the modern tendency to address new acquaintances by their first names. | Denounce, deplore, condemn, censure, denigrate, decry, belittle. | Approve |
| Diligence | n. care and perseverance in carrying out tasks. Use : Her employers were greatly impressed by her diligence and offered her a partnership in the firm | Hard-working, assiduousness, meticulousness, conscientiousness, painstakingness | Laziness, carelessness, negligence |
| Discretion | n. ability to adjust action to circumstances Use: Use your discretion in this matter and do not discuss the matter with anyone. | Prudence, caution, acumen, predilection, sagacity, wariness, volition | Indiscretion |
| dispel | v. scatter, drive away, cause to vanish Use: The bright sunlight eventually dispelled the morning mist | Disperse | Attract |
| Dissemination | v. Opening to public discussion or debate, the act of spreading something, Use:By their use of the internet, propagandists, have been able to disseminate their pet doctrines to new audiences around the globe | Broadcasting, diffusion, propagation, | |
| Dogmatic | Adj. Opinionated Use: We tried to discourage him from being so dogmatic, but nothing could convince him that his opinions might be wrong | Arbitrary, doctrinal, unbending, inflexible, authoritarian, | Flexible |
| echelon | n. A body of troops arranged in a line | Level, stratum, rank, height | |
| fallible | Adj. Liable to err. Use: I Know I am fallible, but I feel confident that I am right this time | Imperfect, unsound, mortal, weak, frail, | Perfect |
| Harbinger | n. an indication of the approach of something or someone, forerunner v. fore shadow or presage Use: The crocus is an early harbinger of spring | Forerunner, herald, potent, omen, | |
| illustrious | Adj. Widely known and esteemed | Memorable, well-known, famous | Inglorious, shameful |
| impetus | n. A force that moves something along, incentive, stimulus Use: A new federal highway program would create jobs and will give added impetus to our economic recovery | Momentum, thrust, motivation | inertia |
| Intermittent | Adj. Periodic Use: The outdoor wedding reception had to be shifted indoor to avoid the intermittent showers that fell on and of all afternoon. | Alternating, sporadic | Constant |
| Latent | Adj. Potentially existing, but not presently evident or realized Use: Polaroid pictures are popular at the parties because you can see the latent photographic image gradually appear before your eyes | Dormant, embryonic, suppressed, undeveloped, | Overt |
| Latitude | n. freedom from narrow limitations Use: I think you have permitted your son too much latitude in this manner | Leeway, freedom, autonomy, liberty, room, rope | |
| Manifestation | n. outward demonstration, indication Use: Mozart’s early attraction to the harpsichord was the first manifestation of his pronounced musical bent | Sign, demonstration, expression, symptom, | |
| mitigate | v. lessen or try to lessen the seriousness or extent of Use: Nothing he could do to mitigate her anger, she refused to forgive him | Appease, alleviate, allay, assuage, mollify, extenuate, palliate | Aggrevate, exacerbate |
| motley | Adj. Multicolored or mixed Use: he wore a motley tunic, red and green and blue and gold all patched together haphazardly | Assorted, diversed, mixed, dissimilar, | Uniform, homogenous, monochrome |
| pensive | Adj. Dreamily thoughtful, thoughtful with a hint of sadness Use: The pensive lover gazed at the portrait of his beloved and sighed deeply. | Brooding, pondering, meditative, contemplative | |
| prolific | Adj. Abundantly fruitful Use: She was a prolific writer, who produced as meany as three books a years | Productive, abundant, fecund | Unproductive, scarce |
| relinquish | v. give up something with reluctance, yield Use: once you get used to fringes like expense account meal and company car, it is very difficult to relinquish them | Surrender, renounce, abandon, repudiate, cede, | Vanquish, retain, |
| solicit | v. request earnestly, seek Use: The Mayor telephoned all the member of the city council to solicit their votes | Importune, implore, crave, beseech, | Grant |
| tractable | Adj. Docile, easily managed, susceptible to suggestion Use: Although Susan seemed to be a tractable young woman, she had a stubborn streak of independence | Obedient, dutiful, well-mannered | Disobedient, intractable |
| veer | v. change in direction Use: After what seemed to be en eternity, the wind veered to the east and the storm abated | Turn, swerve | |
| Vehement | Adj. Forceful, intensely emotional; with marked vigor Use: He became so Vehement in describing what had happened with him that he started jumping up and down | Fervent, passionate, | Apathetic |
| Caprice | n. whim, a sudden desire. Use: She was an unpredictable creature, acting on caprice, never taking thought of consequences | Whim, impulse, quirk, fad, fancy, notion | |
| stifle | v. suppress, extinguish, inhibit Use: Halfway through the boring picture, Laura gave up trying to stifle he yawns. | Smother, asphyxiate, choke, suffocate, strangle, curb, restrain, repress, | Let out |
| concur | v. agree Use: Did you concur with the decision of the court or did you find it unfair? | Agre, harmonize, coincide, assent, acquiesce | Conflict, resist |
| lethargy | v. lack of vitality or energy Use: A complete days work left him in a state of lethargy | Stupor, indolence, weariness | Get-up-and-go |
| Furtive | Adj. stealthy, sneaky, secret and sly or sordid Use: noticing the furtive glance the customer gave the diamond bracelet on the counter, the jeweler wondered whether he had a potential shoplifter in his hands | Surreptitious, clandestine | open |
| efface | v. wipe out or make dim Use: The coin had been handled so many times that its date had been effaced | Obliterate, eradicate, | Engrave |
| Pretentious | Adj. Intended to attract notice and impress others, making unjustified claims, overambitious Use: The other prize winner isn’t wearing her medal.; isn’t it a bit pretentious of you to wear yours? | Ostentatious, pompous, conceited | Down-to-earth |
| Compunction | n. a feeling of deep regret (usually of some misdeed) Use: The judge was especially sever in his sentencing as the criminal had shown no compunction for his heinous crime | Regret, scruple, qualm, guilt, reluctance, hesitation, | |
Wednesday, July 1, 2009
Verbal for Bank & other Exams
Aptitude for Bank Exams
1.One of the following is my secret word:AIM DUE MOD OAT TIE.With the list in front of you, if I were to tell you any one of my secret word, then you would be able to tell me the number of vowels in my secret word.Which is my secret word?
Ans.TIE
2.In the following figure:A B C
D
E F G
H
I
Each of the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 is:
a)Represented by a different letter in the figure above.
b)Positioned in the figure above so that each of A + B + C,C + D +E,E + F + G, and G + H + I is equal to 13.
Which digit does E represent?
Ans.E is 4
3.One of Mr. Horton,his wife,their son,and Mr. Horton's mother is a doctor and another is a lawyer.
a)If the doctor is younger than the lawyer, then the doctor and the lawyer are not blood relatives.
b)If the doctor is a woman, then the doctor and the lawyer are blood relatives.
c)If the lawyer is a man, then the doctor is a man.
Whose occupation you know?
Ans.Mr. Horton:he is the doctor.
4.Here is a picture of two cubes:
a)The two cubes are exactly alike.
b)The hidden faces indicated by the dots have the same alphabet on them.
Which alphabet-q, r, w, or k is on the faces indicated by the dots?
Ans.q
5.In the following figure:
A D
B G E
C F
Each of the seven digits from 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 is:
a)Represented by a different letter in the figure above.
b)Positioned in the figure above so that A*B*C,B*G*E, and D*E*F are equal.
Which digit does G represent?
Ans.G represents the digit 2.
6.Mr. and Mrs. Aye and Mr. and Mrs. Bee competed in a chess tournament.Of the three games played:
a)In only the first game werethe two players married to each other.
b)The men won two games and the women won one game.
c)The Ayes won more games than the Bees.
d)Anyone who lost game did not play the subsequent game.
Who did not lose a game?
Ans.Mrs.Bee did not lose a game.
7.Three piles of chips--pile I consists one chip, pile II consists of chips, and pile III consists of three chips--are to be used in game played by Anita and Brinda.The game requires:
a)That each player in turn take only one chip or all chips from just one pile.
b)That the player who has to take the last chip loses.
c)That Anita now have her turn.
From which pile should Anita draw in order to win?
Ans.Pile II
8.Of Abdul, Binoy, and Chandini:
a)Each member belongs to the Tee family whose members always tell the truth or to the El family whose members always lie.
b)Abdul says ''Either I belong or Binoy belongs to a different family from the other two."
Whose family do you name of?
Ans.Binoy's family--El.
9.In a class composed of x girls and y boys what part of the class is composed of girls
A.y/(x + y)
B.x/xy
C.x/(x + y)
D.y/xy
Ans.C
10.What is the maximum number of half-pint bottles of cream that can be filled with a 4-gallon can of cream(2 pt.=1 qt. and 4 qt.=1 gal)
A.16
B.24
C.30
D.64
Ans.D
11.If the operation,^ is defined by the equation x ^ y = 2x + y,what is the value of a in 2 ^ a = a ^ 3
A.0
B.1
C.-1
D.4
Ans.B
12.A coffee shop blends 2 kinds of coffee,putting in 2 parts of a 33p. a gm. grade to 1 part of a 24p. a gm.If the mixture is changed to 1 part of the 33p. a gm. to 2 parts of the less expensive grade,how much will the shop save in blending 100 gms.
A.Rs.90
B.Rs.1.00
C.Rs.3.00
D.Rs.8.00
Ans.C
13.There are 200 questions on a 3 hr examination.Among these questions are 50 mathematics problems.It is suggested that twice as much time be spent on each maths problem as for each other question.How many minutes should be spent on mathematics problems
A.36
B.72
C.60
D.100
Ans.B
14.In a group of 15,7 have studied Latin, 8 have studied Greek, and 3 have not studied either.How many of these studied both Latin and Greek
A.0
B.3
C.4
D.5
Ans.B
15.If 13 = 13w/(1-w) ,then (2w)2 =
A.1/4
B.1/2
C.1
D.2
Ans.C
16. If a and b are positive integers and (a-b)/3.5 = 4/7, then
(A) b < a
(B) b > a
(C) b = a
(D) b >= a
Ans. A
17. In june a baseball team that played 60 games had won 30% of its game played. After a phenomenal winning streak this team raised its average to 50% .How many games must the team have won in a row to attain this average?
A. 12
B. 20
C. 24
D. 30
Ans. C
18. M men agree to purchase a gift for Rs. D. If three men drop out how much more will each have to contribute towards the purchase of the gift/
A. D/(M-3)
B. MD/3
C. M/(D-3)
D. 3D/(M2-3M)
Ans. D
19. A company contracts to paint 3 houses. Mr.Brown can paint a house in 6 days while Mr.Black would take 8 days and Mr.Blue 12 days. After 8 days Mr.Brown goes on vacation and Mr. Black begins to work for a period of 6 days. How many days will it take Mr.Blue to complete the contract?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 11
D. 12
Ans.C
20. 2 hours after a freight train leaves Delhi a passenger train leaves the same station travelling in the same direction at an average speed of 16 km/hr. After travelling 4 hrs the passenger train overtakes the freight train. The average speed of the freight train was?
A. 30
B. 40
C.58
D. 60
Ans. B
21. If 9x-3y=12 and 3x-5y=7 then 6x-2y = ?
A.-5
B. 4
C. 2
D. 8
Ans. D
22. There are 5 red shoes, 4 green shoes. If one draw randomly a shoe what is the probability of getting a red shoe
Ans 5c1/ 9c1
23. What is the selling price of a car? If the cost of the car is Rs.60 and a profit of 10% over selling price is earned
Ans: Rs 66/-
24. 1/3 of girls , 1/2 of boys go to canteen .What factor and total number of classmates go to canteen.
Ans: Cannot be determined.
25. The price of a product is reduced by 30% . By what percentage should it be increased to make it 100%
Ans: 42.857%
26. There is a square of side 6cm . A circle is inscribed inside the square. Find the ratio of the area of circle to square.
Ans. 11/14
27. There are two candles of equal lengths and of different thickness. The thicker one lasts of six hours. The thinner 2 hours less than the thicker one. Ramesh lights the two candles at the same time. When he went to bed he saw the thicker one is twice the length of the thinner one. How long ago did Ramesh light the two candles .
Ans: 3 hours.
28. If M/N = 6/5,then 3M+2N = ?
29. If p/q = 5/4 , then 2p+q= ?
30. If PQRST is a parallelogram what it the ratio of triangle PQS & parallelogram PQRST .
Ans: 1:2
31. The cost of an item is Rs 12.60. If the profit is 10% over selling price what is the selling price ?
Ans: Rs 13.86/-
32. There are 6 red shoes & 4 green shoes . If two of red shoes are drawn what is the probability of getting red shoes
Ans: 6c2/10c2
33. To 15 lts of water containing 20% alcohol, we add 5 lts of pure water. What is % alcohol.
Ans : 15%
34. A worker is paid Rs.20/- for a full days work. He works 1,1/3,2/3,1/8.3/4 days in a week. What is the total amount paid for that worker ?
Ans : 57.50
35. If the value of x lies between 0 & 1 which of the following is the largest?
(a) x
(b) x2
(c) -x
(d) 1/x
Ans : (d)
36. If the total distance of a journey is 120 km .If one goes by 60 kmph and comes back at 40kmph what is the average speed during the journey?
Ans: 48kmph
37. A school has 30% students from Maharashtra .Out of these 20% are Bombey students. Find the total percentage of Bombay?
Ans: 6%
38. An equilateral triangle of sides 3 inch each is given. How many equilateral triangles of side 1 inch can be formed from it?
Ans: 9
39. If A/B = 3/5,then 15A = ?
Ans : 9B
40. Each side of a rectangle is increased by 100% .By what percentage does the area increase?
Ans : 300%
41. Perimeter of the back wheel = 9 feet, front wheel = 7 feet on a certain distance, the front wheel gets 10 revolutions more than the back wheel .What is the distance?
Ans : 315 feet.
42. Perimeter of front wheel =30, back wheel = 20. If front wheel revolves 240 times. How many revolutions will the back wheel take?
Ans: 360 times
43. 20% of a 6 litre solution and 60% of 4 litre solution are mixed. What percentage of the mixture of solution
Ans: 36%
44City A's population is 68000, decreasing at a rate of 80 people per year. City B having population 42000 is increasing at a rate of 120 people per year. In how many years both the cities will have same population?
Ans: 130 years
45Two cars are 15 kms apart. One is turning at a speed of 50kmph and the other at 40kmph . How much time will it take for the two cars to meet?
Ans: 3/2 hours
46A person wants to buy 3 paise and 5 paise stamps costing exactly one rupee. If he buys which of the following number of stamps he won't able to buy 3 paise stamps.
Ans: 9
47There are 12 boys and 15 girls, How many different dancing groups can be formed with 2 boys and 3 girls.
48Which of the following fractions is less than 1/3
(a) 22/62
(b) 15/46
(c) 2/3
(d) 1
Ans: (b)
49There are two circles, one circle is inscribed and another circle is circumscribed over a square. What is the ratio of area of inner to outer circle?
Ans: 1 : 2
50Three types of tea the a,b,c costs Rs. 95/kg,100/kg and70/kg respectively.
How many kgs of each should be blended to produce 100 kg of mixture worth Rs.90/kg,
given that the quntities of band c are equal
a)70,15,15
b)50,25,25
c)60,20,20
d)40,30,30
Ans. (b)
51. in a class, except 18 all are above 50 years.
15 are below 50 years of age. How many people are there
(a) 30
(b) 33
(c) 36
(d) none of these.
Ans. (d)
52. If a boat is moving in upstream with velocity of 14 km/hr and goes downstream with a velocity of 40 km/hr, then what is the speed of the stream ?
(a) 13 km/hr
(b) 26 km/hr
(c) 34 km/hr
(d) none of these
Ans. A
53. Find the value of ( 0.75 * 0.75 * 0.75 - 0.001 ) / ( 0.75 * 0.75 - 0.075 + 0.01)
(a) 0.845
(b) 1.908
(c) 2.312
(d) 0.001
Ans. A
54. A can have a piece of work done in 8 days, B can work three times faster than the A, C can work five times faster than A. How many days will they take to do the work together ?
(a) 3 days
(b) 8/9 days
(c) 4 days
(d) can't say
Ans. B
55. A car travels a certain distance taking 7 hrs in forward journey, during the return journey increased speed 12km/hr takes the times 5 hrs.What is the distance travelled
(a) 210 kms
(b) 30 kms
(c) 20 kms
(c) none of these
Ans. B
56. Instead of multiplying a number by 7, the number is divided by 7. What is the percentage of error obtained ?
57. Find (7x + 4y ) / (x-2y) if x/2y = 3/2 ?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 7
(d) data insufficient
Ans. C
58. A man buys 12 lts of liquid which contains 20% of the liquid and the rest is water. He then mixes it with 10 lts of another mixture with 30% of liquid.What is the % of water in the new mixture?
59. If a man buys 1 lt of milk for Rs.12 and mixes it with 20% water and sells it for Rs.15, then what is the percentage of gain?
60. Pipe A can fill a tank in 30 mins and Pipe B can fill it in 28 mins.If 3/4th of the tank is filled by Pipe B alone and both are opened, how much time is required by both the pipes to fill the tank completely ?
61. If on an item a company gives 25% discount, they earn 25% profit. If they now give 10% discount then what is the profit percentage.
(a) 40%
(b) 55%
(c) 35%
(d) 30%
Ans. D
62. A certain number of men can finish a piece of work in 10 days. If however there were 10 men less it will take 10 days more for the work to be finished. How many men were there originally?
(a) 110 men
(b) 130 men
(c) 100 men
(d) none of these
Ans. A
63. In simple interest what sum amounts of Rs.1120/- in 4 years and Rs.1200/- in 5 years ?
(a) Rs. 500
(b) Rs. 600
(c) Rs. 800
(d) Rs. 900
Ans. C
64. If a sum of money compound annually amounts of thrice itself in 3 years. In how many years
will it become 9 times itself.
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12
Ans A
65. Two trains move in the same direction at 50 kmph and 32 kmph respectively. A man in the slower train
observes the 15 seconds elapse before the faster train completely passes by him.
What is the length of faster train ?
(a) 100m
(b) 75m
(c) 120m
(d) 50m
Ans B
66. How many mashes are there in 1 squrare meter of wire gauge if each mesh
is 8mm long and 5mm wide ?
(a) 2500
(b) 25000
(c) 250
(d) 250000
Ans B
67. x% of y is y% of ?
(a) x/y
(b) 2y
(c) x
(d) can't be determined
Ans. C
68. The price of sugar increases by 20%, by what % should a housewife reduce the consumption of sugar so that expenditure on sugar can be same as before ?
(a) 15%
(b) 16.66%
(c) 12%
(d) 9%
Ans B
69. A man spends half of his salary on household expenses, 1/4th for rent, 1/5th for travel expenses, the man deposits the rest in a bank. If his monthly deposits in the bank amount 50, what is his monthly salary ?
(a) Rs.500
(b) Rs.1500
(c) Rs.1000
(d) Rs. 900
Ans C
70. The population of a city increases @ 4% p.a. There is an additional annual increase of 4% of the population due to the influx of job seekers, find the % increase in population after 2 years ?
71. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a school is 3:2 Out of these 10% the boys and 25% of girls are scholarship holders. % of students who are not scholarship holders.?
72. 15 men take 21 days of 8 hrs. each to do a piece of work. How many days of 6 hrs. each would it take for 21 women if 3 women do as much work as 2 men?
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 19
(d) 29
Ans. A
73. A cylinder is 6 cms in diameter and 6 cms in height. If spheres of the same size are made from the material obtained, what is the diameter of each sphere?
(a) 5 cms
(b) 2 cms
(c) 3 cms
(d) 4 cms
Ans C
74. A rectangular plank (2)1/2 meters wide can be placed so that it is on either side of the diagonal of a square shown below.(Figure is not available)What is the area of the plank?
Ans :7*(2)1/2
75. The difference b/w the compound interest payble half yearly and the simple interest on a
certain sum lent out at 10% p.a for 1 year is Rs 25. What is the sum?
(a) Rs. 15000
(b) Rs. 12000
(c) Rs. 10000
(d) none of these
Ans C
76. What is the smallest number by which 2880 must be divided in order to make it into a
perfect square ?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Ans. C
77. A father is 30 years older than his son however he will be only thrice as old as the son after 5 years
what is father's present age ?
(a) 40 yrs
(b) 30 yrs
(c) 50 yrs
(d) none of these
Ans. A
78. An article sold at a profit of 20% if both the cost price and selling price would be Rs.20/- the profit would be 10% more. What is the cost price of that article?
29. If an item costs Rs.3 in '99 and Rs.203 in '00.What is the % increase in price?
(a) 200/3 %
(b) 200/6 %
(c) 100%
(d) none of these
Ans. A
80. 5 men or 8 women do equal amount of work in a day. a job requires 3 men and 5 women to finish the job in 10 days how many woman are required to finish the job in 14 days.
a) 10
b) 7
c) 6
d) 12
Ans 7
81. A simple interest amount of rs 5000 for six month is rs 200. what is the anual rate of interest?
a) 10%
b) 6%
c) 8%
d) 9%
Ans 8%
82. In objective test a correct ans score 4 marks and on a wrong ans 2 marks are ---. a student score 480 marks from 150 question. how many ans were correct?
a) 120
b) 130
c) 110
d) 150
Ans130.
83. An artical sold at amount of 50% the net sale price is rs 425 .what is the list price of the artical?
a) 500
b) 488
c) 480
d) 510
Ans 500
84. A man leaves office daily at 7pm A driver with car comes from his home to pick him from office and bring back home
One day he gets free at 5:30 and instead of waiting for driver he starts walking towards home.
In the way he meets the car and returns home on car He reaches home 20 minutes earlier than usual.
In how much time does the man reach home usually??
Ans. 1hr 20min
85. A works thrice as much as B. If A takes 60 days less than B to do a work then find the number of days it would take to complete the work if both work together?
Ans. 22½days
86. How many 1's are there in the binary form of 8*1024 + 3*64 + 3
Ans. 4
87. In a digital circuit which was to implement (A B) + (A)XOR(B), the designer implements (A B) (A)XOR(B)
What is the probability of error in it ?
88. A boy has Rs 2. He wins or loses Re 1 at a time If he wins he gets Re 1 and if he loses the game he loses Re 1.
He can loose only 5 times. He is out of the game if he earns Rs 5.
Find the number of ways in which this is possible?
Ans. 16
89. If there are 1024*1280 pixels on a screen and each pixel can have around 16 million colors
Find the memory required for this?
Ans. 4MB
90. On a particular day A and B decide that they would either speak the truth or will lie.
C asks A whether he is speaking truth or lying?
He answers and B listens to what he said. C then asks B what A has said B says "A says that he is a liar"
What is B speaking ?
(a) Truth
(b) Lie
(c) Truth when A lies
(d) Cannot be determined
Ans. (b)
91. What is the angle between the two hands of a clock when time is 8:30
Ans. 75(approx)
92. A student is ranked 13th from right and 8th
from left. How many students are there in totality ?
93. A man walks east and turns right and then from there to his left and then 45degrees to
his right.In which direction did he go
Ans. North west
94. A student gets 70% in one subject, 80% in the other. To get an overall of 75% how much should get in third subject.
95. A man shows his friend a woman sitting in a park and says that she the daughter of my grandmother's only son.
What is the relation between the two
Ans. Daughter
96. How many squares with sides 1/2 inch long are needed to cover a rectangle that is 4 ft long and 6 ft wide
(a) 24
(b) 96
(c) 3456
(d) 13824
(e) 14266
97. If a=2/3b , b=2/3c, and c=2/3d what part of d is b/
(a) 8/27
(b) 4/9
(c) 2/3
(d) 75%
(e) 4/3
Ans. (b)
98Successive discounts of 20% and 15% are equal to a single discount of
(a) 30%
(b) 32%
(c) 34%
(d) 35%
(e) 36
Ans. (b)
99. The petrol tank of an automobile can hold g liters.If a liters was removed when the tank was full, what part of the full tank was removed?
(a)g-a
(b)g/a
(c) a/g
(d) (g-a)/a
(e) (g-a)/g
Ans. (c)
100. If x/y=4 and y is not '0' wh
at % of x is 2x-y
(a)150%
(b)175%
(c)200%
(d)250%
Ans. (b)
1.If 2x-y=4 then 6x-3y=?
(a)15
(b)12
(c)18
(d)10
Ans. (b)
2.If x=y=2z and xyz=256 then what is the value of x?
(a)12
(b)8
(c)16
(d)6
Ans. (b)
3. (1/10)18 - (1/10)20 = ?
(a) 99/1020
(b) 99/10
(c) 0.9
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
4.Pipe A can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins and Pipe C can empty the same in 40 mins.If all of them work together, find the time taken to fill the tank
(a) 17 1/7 mins
(b) 20 mins
(c) 8 mins
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
5. Thirty men take 20 days to complete a job working 9 hours a day.How many hour a day should 40 men work to complete the job?
(a) 8 hrs
(b) 7 1/2 hrs
(c) 7 hrs
(d) 9 hrs
Ans. (b)
6. Find the smallest number in a GP whose sum is 38 and product 1728
(a) 12
(b) 20
(c) 8
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
7. A boat travels 20 kms upstream in 6 hrs and 18 kms downstream in 4 hrs.Find the speed of the boat in still water and the speed of the water current?
(a) 1/2 kmph
(b) 7/12 kmph
(c) 5 kmph
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
8. A goat is tied to one corner of a square plot of side 12m by a rope 7m long.Find the area it can graze?
(a) 38.5 sq.m
(b) 155 sq.m
(c) 144 sq.m
(d) 19.25 sq.m
Ans. (a)
9. Mr. Shah decided to walk down the escalator of a tube station. He found that if he walks down 26 steps, he requires 30 seconds to reach the bottom. However, if he steps down 34 stairs he would only require 18 seconds to get to the bottom. If the time is measured from the moment the top step begins to descend to the time he steps off the last step at the bottom, find out the height of the stair way in steps?
Ans.46 steps.
10. The average age of 10 members of a committee is the same as it was 4 years ago, because an old member has been replaced by a young member. Find how much younger is the new member ?
Ans.40 years.
11. Three containers A, B and C have volumes a, b, and c respectively; and container A is full of water while the other two are empty. If from container A water is poured into container B which becomes 1/3 full, and into container C which becomes 1/2 full, how much water is left in container A?
12. ABCE is an isosceles trapezoid and ACDE is a rectangle. AB = 10 and EC = 20. What is the length of AE?
Ans. AE = 10.
13. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle at A and B respectively and the chord BC is parallel to tangent PA. If AC = 6 cm, and length of the tangent AP is 9 cm, then what is the length of the chord BC?
Ans. BC = 4 cm.
15 Three cards are drawn at random from an ordinary pack of cards. Find the probability that they will consist of a king, a queen and an ace.
Ans. 64/2210.
16. A number of cats got together and decided to kill between them 999919 mice. Every cat killed an equal number of mice. Each cat killed more mice than there were cats. How many cats do you think there were ?
Ans. 991.
17. If Log2 x - 5 Log x + 6 = 0, then what would the value / values of x be?
Ans. x = e2 or e3.
18. The square of a two digit number is divided by half the number. After 36 is added to the quotient, this sum is then divided by 2. The digits of the resulting number are the same as those in the original number, but they are in reverse order. The ten's place of the original number is equal to twice the difference between its digits. What is the number?
Ans. 46
19.Can you tender a one rupee note in such a manner that there shall be total 50 coins but none of them would be 2 paise coins.?
Ans. 45 one paisa coins, 2 five paise coins, 2 ten paise coins, and 1 twenty-five paise coins.
20.A monkey starts climbing up a tree 20ft. tall. Each hour, it hops 3ft. and slips back 2ft. How much time would it take the monkey to reach the top?
Ans.18 hours.
21. What is the missing number in this series? 8 2 14 6 11 ? 14 6 18 12
Ans. 9
22. A certain type of mixture is prepared by mixing brand A at Rs.9 a kg. with brand B at Rs.4 a kg. If the mixture is worth Rs.7 a kg., how many kgs. of brand A are needed to make 40kgs. of the mixture?
Ans. Brand A needed is 16kgs.
23. A wizard named Nepo says "I am only three times my son's age. My father is 40 years more than twice my age. Together the three of us are a mere 1240 years old." How old is Nepo?
Ans. 360 years old.
24. One dog tells the other that there are two dogs in front of me. The other one also shouts that he too had two behind him. How many are they?
Ans. Three.
25. A man ate 100 bananas in five days, each day eating 6 more than the previous day. How many bananas did he eat on the first day?
Ans. Eight.
26. If it takes five minutes to boil one egg, how long will it take to boil four eggs?
Ans. Five minutes.
27. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour hand at intervals of 64 minutes of correct time. How much a day does the clock gain or lose?
Ans. 32 8/11 minutes.
28. Solve for x and y: 1/x - 1/y = 1/3, 1/x2 + 1/y2 = 5/9.
Ans. x = 3/2 or -3 and y = 3 or -3/2.
29. Daal is now being sold at Rs. 20 a kg. During last month its rate was Rs. 16 per kg. By how much percent should a family reduce its consumption so as to keep the expenditure fixed?
Ans. 20 %.
30. Find the least value of 3x + 4y if x2y3 = 6.
Ans. 10.
31. Can you find out what day of the week was January 12, 1979?
Ans. Friday.
32. A garrison of 3300 men has provisions for 32 days, when given at a rate of 850 grams per head. At the end of 7 days a reinforcement arrives and it was found that now the provisions will last 8 days less, when given at the rate of 825 grams per head. How, many more men can it feed?
Ans. 1700 men.
33. From 5 different green balls, four different blue balls and three different red balls, how many combinations of balls can be chosen taking at least one green and one blue ball?
Ans. 3720.
34. Three pipes, A, B, & C are attached to a tank. A & B can fill it in 20 & 30 minutes respectively while C can empty it in 15 minutes. If A, B & C are kept open successively for 1 minute each, how soon will the tank be filled?
Ans. 167 minutes.
35. A person walking 5/6 of his usual rate is 40 minutes late. What is his usual time? Ans. 3 hours 20 minutes.
36.For a motorist there are three ways going from City A to City C. By way of bridge the distance is 20 miles and toll is $0.75. A tunnel between the two cities is a distance of 10 miles and toll is $1.00 for the vehicle and driver and $0.10 for each passenger. A two-lane highway without toll goes east for 30 miles to city B and then 20 miles in a northwest direction to City C.
1. Which is the shortest route from B to C
(a) Directly on toll free highway to City C
(b) The bridge
(c) The Tunnel
(d) The bridge or the tunnel
(e) The bridge only if traffic is heavy on the toll free highway
Ans. (a)
2. The most economical way of going from City A to City B, in terms of toll and distance is to use the
(a) tunnel
(b) bridge
(c) bridge or tunnel
(d) toll free highway
(e) bridge and highway
Ans. (a)
3. Jim usually drives alone from City C to City A every working day. His firm deducts a percentage of employee pay for lateness. Which factor would most influence his choice of the bridge or the tunnel ?
(a) Whether his wife goes with him
(b) scenic beauty on the route
(c) Traffic conditions on the road, bridge and tunnel
(d) saving $0.25 in tolls
(e) price of gasoline consumed in covering additional 10 miles on the bridge
Ans. (a)
4. In choosing between the use of the bridge and the tunnel the chief factor(s) would be:
I. Traffic and road conditions
II. Number of passengers in the car
III. Location of one's homes in the center or outskirts of one of the cities
IV. Desire to save $0.25
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) II and III only
(d) III and IV only
(e) I and II only
Ans. (a)
37.The letters A, B, C, D, E, F and G, not necessarily in that order, stand for seven consecutive integers from 1 to 10
D is 3 less than A
B is the middle term
F is as much less than B as C is greater than D
G is greater than F
1. The fifth integer is
(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) F
Ans. (a)
2. A is as much greater than F as which integer is less than G
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Ans. (a)
3. If A = 7, the sum of E and G is
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 14
(e) 16
Ans. (a)
4. A - F = ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) Cannot be determined
Ans. (a)
5. An integer T is as much greater than C as C is greater than E. T can be written as A + E. What is D?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) Cannot be determined
Ans. (a)
6. The greatest possible value of C is how much greater than the smallest possible value of D?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) 6
Ans. (a)
38.
1. All G's are H's
2. All G's are J's or K's
3. All J's and K's are G's
4. All L's are K's
5. All N's are M's
6. No M's are G's
1. If no P's are K's, which of the following must be true?
(a) All P's are J's
(b) No P is a G
(c) No P is an H
(d) If any P is an H it is a G
(e) If any P is a G it is a J
Ans. (a)
2. Which of the following can be logically deduced from the conditions stated?
(a) No M's are H's
(b) No M's that are not N's are H's
(c) No H's are M's
(d) Some M's are H's
(e) All M's are H's
Ans. (a)
3. Which of the following is inconsistent with one or more of the conditions?
(a) All H's are G's
(b) All H's that are not G's are M's
(c) Some H's are both M's and G's
(d) No M's are H's
(e) All M's are H's
Ans. (a)
4. The statement "No L's are J's" is
I. Logically deducible from the conditions stated
II. Consistent with but not deducible from the conditions stated
III. Deducible from the stated conditions together with the additional statement "No J's are K's"
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) II and III only
(e) Neither I, II nor III
Ans. (a)
39.In country X, democratic, conservative and justice parties have fought three civil wars in twenty years. TO restore stability an agreement is reached to rotate the top offices President, Prime Minister and Army Chief among the parties so that each party controls one and only one office at all times. The three top office holders must each have two deputies, one from each of the other parties. Each deputy must choose a staff composed of equally members of his or her chiefs party and member of the third party.
1. When Justice party holds one of the top offices, which of the following cannot be true
(a) Some of the staff members within that office are justice party members
(b) Some of the staff members within that office are democratic party members
(c) Two of the deputies within the other offices are justice party members
(d) Two of the deputies within the other offices are conservative party members
(e) Some of the staff members within the other offices are justice party members.
Ans. (a)
2. When the democratic party holds presidency, the staff of the prime minister's deputies are composed
I. One-fourth of democratic party members
II. One-half of justice party members and one-fourth of conservative party members
III. One-half of conservative party members and one-fourth of justice party members.
(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) II or III but not both
(d) I and II or I and III
(e) None of these
Ans. (a)
3. Which of the following is allowable under the rules as stated:
(a) More than half of the staff within a given office belonging to a single party
(b) Half of the staff within a given office belonging to a single party
(c) Any person having a member of the same party as his or her immediate superior
(d) Half the total number of staff members in all three offices belonging to a single party
(e) Half the staff members in a given office belonging to parties different from the party of the top office holder in that office.
Ans. (a)
4. The office of the Army Chief passes from Conservative to Justice party. Which of the following must be fired.
(a) The democratic deputy and all staff members belonging to Justice party
(b) Justice party deputy and all his or hers staff members
(c) Justice party deputy and half of his Conservative staff members in the chief of staff office
(d) The Conservative deputy and all of his or her staff members belonging to Conservative party
(e) No deputies and all staff members belonging to conservative parties.
Ans. (a)
40.In recommendations to the board of trustees a tuition increase of $500 per year, the president of the university said "There were no student demonstrations over the previous increases of $300 last year and $200 the year before". If the president's statement is accurate then which of the following can be validly inferred from the information given:
I. Most students in previous years felt that the increases were justified because of increased operating costs.
II. Student apathy was responsible for the failure of students to protest the previous tuition increases.
III. Students are not likely to demonstrate over new tuition increases.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I or II but not both
(d) I, II and III
(e) None
Ans. (a)
41. The office staff of XYZ corporation presently consists of three bookeepers--A, B, C and 5 secretaries D, E, F, G, H. The management is planning to open a new office in another city using 2 bookeepers and 3 secretaries of the present staff . To do so they plan to seperate certain individuals who don't function well together. The following guidelines were established to set up the new office
I. Bookeepers A and C are constantly finding fault with one another and should not be sent together to the new office as a team
II. C and E function well alone but not as a team , they should be seperated
III. D and G have not been on speaking terms and shouldn't go together
IV Since D and F have been competing for promotion they shouldn't be a team
1.If A is to be moved as one of the bookeepers,which of the following cannot be a possible working unit.
A.ABDEH
B.ABDGH
C.ABEFH
D.ABEGH
Ans.B
2.If C and F are moved to the new office,how many combinations are possible
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Ans.A
3.If C is sent to the new office,which member of the staff cannot go with C
A.B
B.D
C.F
D.G
Ans.B
4.Under the guidelines developed,which of the following must go to the new office
A.B
B.D
C.E
D.G
Ans.A
5.If D goes to the new office,which of the following is/are true
I.C cannot go
II.A cannot go
III.H must also go
A.I only
B.II only
C.I and II only
D.I and III only
Ans.D
42.After months of talent searching for an administrative assistant to the president of the college the field of applicants has been narrowed down to 5--A, B, C, D, E .It was announced that the finalist would be chosen after a series of all-day group personal interviews were held.The examining committee agreed upon the following procedure
I.The interviews will be held once a week
II.3 candidates will appear at any all-day interview session
III.Each candidate will appear at least once
IV.If it becomes necessary to call applicants for additonal interviews, no more 1 such applicant should be asked to appear the next week
V.Because of a detail in the written applications,it was agreed that whenever candidate B appears, A should also be present.
VI.Because of travel difficulties it was agreed that C will appear for only 1 interview.
1.At the first interview the following candidates appear A,B,D.Which of the follwing combinations can be called for the interview to be held next week.
A.BCD
B.CDE
C.ABE
D.ABC
Ans.B
2.Which of the following is a possible sequence of combinations for interviews in 2 successive weeks
A.ABC;BDE
B.ABD;ABE
C.ADE;ABC
D.BDE;ACD
Ans.C
3.If A ,B and D appear for the interview and D is called for additional interview the following week,which 2 candidates may be asked to appear with D?
I. A
II B
III.C
IV.E
A.I and II
B.I and III only
C.II and III only
D.III and IV only
Ans.D
4.Which of the following correctly state(s) the procedure followed by the search committee
I.After the second interview all applicants have appeared at least once
II.The committee sees each applicant a second time
III.If a third session,it is possible for all applicants to appear at least twice
A.I only
B.II only
C.III only
D.Both I and II
Ans.A
43. A certain city is served by subway lines A,B and C and numbers 1 2 and 3
When it snows , morning service on B is delayed
When it rains or snows , service on A, 2 and 3 are delayed both in the morning and afternoon
When temp. falls below 30 degrees farenheit afternoon service is cancelled in either the A line or the 3 line,
but not both.
When the temperature rises over 90 degrees farenheit, the afternoon service is cancelled in either the line C or the
3 line but not both.
When the service on the A line is delayed or cancelled, service on the C line which connects the A line, is delayed.
When service on the 3 line is cancelled, service on the B line which connects the 3 line is delayed.
Q1. On Jan 10th, with the temperature at 15 degree farenheit, it snows all day. On how many lines will service be
affected, including both morning and afternoon.
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Ans. D
Q2. On Aug 15th with the temperature at 97 degrees farenheit it begins to rain at 1 PM. What is the minimum number
of lines on which service will be affected?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Ans. C
Q3. On which of the following occasions would service be on the greatest number of lines disrupted.
(A) A snowy afternoon with the temperature at 45 degree farenheit
(B) A snowy morning with the temperature at 45 degree farenheit
(C) A rainy afternoon with the temperature at 45 degree farenheit
(D) A rainy afternoon with the temperature at 95 degree farenheit
Ans. B
44. In a certain society, there are two marriage groups, red and brown. No marriage is permitted within a group. On marriage, males become part of their wives groups; women remain in their own group. Children belong to the same group as their parents. Widowers and divorced males revert to the group of their birth. Marriage to more than one person at the same time and marriage to a direct descendant are forbidden
Q1. A brown female could have had
I. A grandfather born Red
II. A grandmother born Red
III Two grandfathers born Brown
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I, II and III
(D) I and II only
Ans. D
Q2. A male born into the brown group may have
(A) An uncle in either group
(B) A brown daughter
(C) A brown son
(D) A son-in-law born into red group
Ans. A
Q3. Which of the following is not permitted under the rules as stated.
(A) A brown male marrying his father's sister
(B) A red female marrying her mother's brother
(C) A widower marrying his wife's sister
(D) A widow marrying her divorced daughter's ex-husband
Ans. B
Q4. If widowers and divorced males retained their group they had upon marrying which of the following would be permissible ( Assume that no previous marriage occurred)
(A) A woman marrying her dead sister's husband
(B) A woman marrying her divorced daughter's ex-husband
(C) A widower marrying his brother's daughter
(D) A woman marrying her mother's brother who is a widower.
Ans. D
Q5. I. All G's are H's
II. All G's are J's or K's
III All J's and K's are G's
IV All L's are K's
V All N's are M's
VI No M's are G's
45. There are six steps that lead from the first to the second floor. No two people can be on the same step
Mr. A is two steps below Mr. C
Mr. B is a step next to Mr. D
Only one step is vacant ( No one standing on that step )
Denote the first step by step 1 and second step by step 2 etc.
1. If Mr. A is on the first step, Which of the following is true?
(a) Mr. B is on the second step
(b) Mr. C is on the fourth step.
(c) A person Mr. E, could be on the third step
(d) Mr. D is on higher step than Mr. C.
Ans: (d)
2. If Mr. E was on the third step & Mr. B was on a higher step than Mr. E which step must be vacant
(a) step 1
(b) step 2
(c) step 4
(d) step 5
(e) step 6
Ans: (a)
3. If Mr. B was on step 1, which step could A be on?
(a) 2&e only
(b) 3&5 only
(c) 3&4 only
(d) 4&5 only
(e) 2&4 only
Ans: (c)
4. If there were two steps between the step that A was standing and the step that B was standing on, and A was on a higher step than D, A must be on step
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) 6
Ans: (c)
5. Which of the following is false
i. B&D can be both on odd-numbered steps in one configuration
ii. In a particular configuration A and C must either both an odd numbered steps or both an even-numbered steps
iii. A person E can be on a step next to the vacant step.
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) iii only
(d) both i and iii
Ans: (c)
46. Six swimmers A, B, C, D, E, F compete in a race. The outcome is as follows.
i. B does not win.
ii. Only two swimmers separate E & D
iii. A is behind D & E
iv. B is ahead of E , with one swimmer intervening
v. F is a head of D
1. Who stood fifth in the race ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Ans: (e)
2. How many swimmers seperate A and F ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) cannot be determined
Ans: (d)
3. The swimmer between C & E is
(a) none
(b) F
(c) D
(d) B
(e) A
Ans: (a)
4. If the end of the race, swimmer D is disqualified by the Judges then swimmer B finishes in which place
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5
Ans: (b)
47. Five houses lettered A,B,C,D, & E are built in a row next to each other. The houses are lined up in the order A,B,C,D, & E. Each of the five houses has a colored chimney. The roof and chimney of each housemust be painted as follows.
i. The roof must be painted either green,red ,or yellow.
ii. The chimney must be painted either white, black, or red.
iii. No house may have the same color chimney as the color of roof.
iv. No house may use any of the same colors that the every next house uses.
v. House E has a green roof.
vi. House B has a red roof and a black chimney
1. Which of the following is true ?
(a) At least two houses have black chimney.
(b) At least two houses have red roofs.
(c) At least two houses have white chimneys
(d) At least two houses have green roofs
(e) At least two houses have yellow roofs
Ans: (c)
2. Which must be false ?
(a) House A has a yellow roof
(b) House A & C have different color chimney
(c) House D has a black chimney
(d) House E has a white chimney
(e) House B&D have the same color roof.
Ans: (b)
3. If house C has a yellow roof. Which must be true.
(a) House E has a white chimney
(b) House E has a black chimney
(c) House E has a red chimney
(d) House D has a red chimney
(e) House C has a black chimney
Ans: (a)
4. Which possible combinations of roof & chimney can house
I. A red roof 7 a black chimney
II. A yellow roof & a red chimney
III. A yellow roof & a black chimney
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) I & II only
(e) I&II&III
Ans: (e)
48. Find x+2y
(i). x+y=10
(ii). 2x+4y=20
Ans: (b)
49. Is angle BAC is a right angle
(i) AB=2BC
(2) BC=1.5AC
Ans: (e)
50. Is x greater than y
(i) x=2k
(ii) k=2y
Ans: (e)
Operating Sytem Interview Questions
Operating Systems
Following are a few basic questions that cover the essentials of OS:
1. Explain the concept of Reentrancy.
It is a useful, memory-saving technique for multiprogrammed timesharing systems. A Reentrant Procedure is one in which multiple users can share a single copy of a program during the same period. Reentrancy has 2 key aspects: The program code cannot modify itself, and the local data for each user process must be stored separately. Thus, the permanent part is the code, and the temporary part is the pointer back to the calling program and local variables used by that program. Each execution instance is called activation. It executes the code in the permanent part, but has its own copy of local variables/parameters. The temporary part associated with each activation is the activation record. Generally, the activation record is kept on the stack.
Note: A reentrant procedure can be interrupted and called by an interrupting program, and still execute correctly on returning to the procedure.
2. Explain Belady's Anomaly.
Also called FIFO anomaly. Usually, on increasing the number of frames allocated to a process' virtual memory, the process execution is faster, because fewer page faults occur. Sometimes, the reverse happens, i.e., the execution time increases even when more frames are allocated to the process. This is Belady's Anomaly. This is true for certain page reference patterns.
3. What is a binary semaphore? What is its use?
A binary semaphore is one, which takes only 0 and 1 as values. They are used to implement mutual exclusion and synchronize concurrent processes.
4. What is thrashing?
It is a phenomenon in virtual memory schemes when the processor spends most of its time swapping pages, rather than executing instructions. This is due to an inordinate number of page faults.
5. List the Coffman's conditions that lead to a deadlock.
Mutual Exclusion: Only one process may use a critical resource at a time.
Hold & Wait: A process may be allocated some resources while waiting for others.
No Pre-emption: No resource can be forcible removed from a process holding it.
Circular Wait: A closed chain of processes exist such that each process holds at least one resource needed by another process in the chain.
6. What are short-, long- and medium-term scheduling?
Long term scheduler determines which programs are admitted to the system for processing. It controls the degree of multiprogramming. Once admitted, a job becomes a process.
Medium term scheduling is part of the swapping function. This relates to processes that are in a blocked or suspended state. They are swapped out of real-memory until they are ready to execute. The swapping-in decision is based on memory-management criteria.
Short term scheduler, also know as a dispatcher executes most frequently, and makes the finest-grained decision of which process should execute next. This scheduler is invoked whenever an event occurs. It may lead to interruption of one process by preemption.
7. What are turnaround time and response time?
Turnaround time is the interval between the submission of a job and its completion. Response time is the interval between submission of a request, and the first response to that request.
8. What are the typical elements of a process image?
User data: Modifiable part of user space. May include program data, user stack area, and programs that may be modified.
User program: The instructions to be executed.
System Stack: Each process has one or more LIFO stacks associated with it. Used to store parameters and calling addresses for procedure and system calls.
Process control Block (PCB): Info needed by the OS to control processes.
9. What is the Translation Lookaside Buffer (TLB)?
In a cached system, the base addresses of the last few referenced pages is maintained in registers called the TLB that aids in faster lookup. TLB contains those page-table entries that have been most recently used. Normally, each virtual memory reference causes 2 physical memory accesses-- one to fetch appropriate page-table entry, and one to fetch the desired data. Using TLB in-between, this is reduced to just one physical memory access in cases of TLB-hit.
10. What is the resident set and working set of a process?
Resident set is that portion of the process image that is actually in real-memory at a particular instant. Working set is that subset of resident set that is actually needed for execution. (Relate this to the variable-window size method for swapping techniques.)
11. When is a system in safe state?
The set of dispatchable processes is in a safe state if there exists at least one temporal order in which all processes can be run to completion without resulting in a deadlock.
12. What is cycle stealing?
We encounter cycle stealing in the context of Direct Memory Access (DMA). Either the DMA controller can use the data bus when the CPU does not need it, or it may force the CPU to temporarily suspend operation. The latter technique is called cycle stealing. Note that cycle stealing can be done only at specific break points in an instruction cycle.
13. What is meant by arm-stickiness?
If one or a few processes have a high access rate to data on one track of a storage disk, then they may monopolize the device by repeated requests to that track. This generally happens with most common device scheduling algorithms (LIFO, SSTF, C-SCAN, etc). High-density multisurface disks are more likely to be affected by this than low density ones.
14. What are the stipulations of C2 level security?
C2 level security provides for:
Discretionary Access Control
Identification and Authentication
Auditing
Resource reuse
15. What is busy waiting?
The repeated execution of a loop of code while waiting for an event to occur is called busy-waiting. The CPU is not engaged in any real productive activity during this period, and the process does not progress toward completion.
16. Explain the popular multiprocessor thread-scheduling strategies.
Load Sharing: Processes are not assigned to a particular processor. A global queue of threads is maintained. Each processor, when idle, selects a thread from this queue. Note that load balancing refers to a scheme where work is allocated to processors on a more permanent basis.
Gang Scheduling: A set of related threads is scheduled to run on a set of processors at the same time, on a 1-to-1 basis. Closely related threads / processes may be scheduled this way to reduce synchronization blocking, and minimize process switching. Group scheduling predated this strategy.
Dedicated processor assignment: Provides implicit scheduling defined by assignment of threads to processors. For the duration of program execution, each program is allocated a set of processors equal in number to the number of threads in the program. Processors are chosen from the available pool.
Dynamic scheduling: The number of thread in a program can be altered during the course of execution.
17. When does the condition 'rendezvous' arise?
In message passing, it is the condition in which, both, the sender and receiver are blocked until the message is delivered.
18. What is a trap and trapdoor?
Trapdoor is a secret undocumented entry point into a program used to grant access without normal methods of access authentication. A trap is a software interrupt, usually the result of an error condition.
19. What are local and global page replacements?
Local replacement means that an incoming page is brought in only to the relevant process' address space. Global replacement policy allows any page frame from any process to be replaced. The latter is applicable to variable partitions model only.
20. Define latency, transfer and seek time with respect to disk I/O.
Seek time is the time required to move the disk arm to the required track. Rotational delay or latency is the time it takes for the beginning of the required sector to reach the head. Sum of seek time (if any) and latency is the access time. Time taken to actually transfer a span of data is transfer time.
21. Describe the Buddy system of memory allocation.
Free memory is maintained in linked lists, each of equal sized blocks. Any such block is of size 2^k. When some memory is required by a process, the block size of next higher order is chosen, and broken into two. Note that the two such pieces differ in address only in their kth bit. Such pieces are called buddies. When any used block is freed, the OS checks to see if its buddy is also free. If so, it is rejoined, and put into the original free-block linked-list.
22. What is time-stamping?
It is a technique proposed by Lamport, used to order events in a distributed system without the use of clocks. This scheme is intended to order events consisting of the transmission of messages. Each system 'i' in the network maintains a counter Ci. Every time a system transmits a message, it increments its counter by 1 and attaches the time-stamp Ti to the message. When a message is received, the receiving system 'j' sets its counter Cj to 1 more than the maximum of its current value and the incoming time-stamp Ti. At each site, the ordering of messages is determined by the following rules: For messages x from site i and y from site j, x precedes y if one of the following conditions holds....(a) if Ti
23. How are the wait/signal operations for monitor different from those for semaphores?
If a process in a monitor signal and no task is waiting on the condition variable, the signal is lost. So this allows easier program design. Whereas in semaphores, every operation affects the value of the semaphore, so the wait and signal operations should be perfectly balanced in the program.
24. In the context of memory management, what are placement and replacement algorithms?
Placement algorithms determine where in available real-memory to load a program. Common methods are first-fit, next-fit, best-fit. Replacement algorithms are used when memory is full, and one process (or part of a process) needs to be swapped out to accommodate a new program. The replacement algorithm determines which are the partitions to be swapped out.
25. In loading programs into memory, what is the difference between load-time dynamic linking and run-time dynamic linking?
For load-time dynamic linking: Load module to be loaded is read into memory. Any reference to a target external module causes that module to be loaded and the references are updated to a relative address from the start base address of the application module.
With run-time dynamic loading: Some of the linking is postponed until actual reference during execution. Then the correct module is loaded and linked.
26. What are demand- and pre-paging?
With demand paging, a page is brought into memory only when a location on that page is actually referenced during execution. With pre-paging, pages other than the one demanded by a page fault are brought in. The selection of such pages is done based on common access patterns, especially for secondary memory devices.
27. Paging a memory management function, while multiprogramming a processor management function, are the two interdependent?
Yes.
28. What is page cannibalizing?
Page swapping or page replacements are called page cannibalizing.
29. What has triggered the need for multitasking in PCs?
Increased speed and memory capacity of microprocessors together with the support fir virtual memory and
Growth of client server computing
30. What are the four layers that Windows NT have in order to achieve independence?
Hardware abstraction layer
Kernel
Subsystems
System Services.
31. What is SMP?
To achieve maximum efficiency and reliability a mode of operation known as symmetric multiprocessing is used. In essence, with SMP any process or threads can be assigned to any processor.
32. What are the key object oriented concepts used by Windows NT?
Encapsulation
Object class and instance
33. Is Windows NT a full blown object oriented operating system? Give reasons.
No Windows NT is not so, because its not implemented in object oriented language and the data structures reside within one executive component and are not represented as objects and it does not support object oriented capabilities .
34. What is a drawback of MVT?
It does not have the features like
ability to support multiple processors
virtual storage
source level debugging
35. What is process spawning?
When the OS at the explicit request of another process creates a process, this action is called process spawning.
36. How many jobs can be run concurrently on MVT?
15 jobs
37. List out some reasons for process termination.
Normal completion
Time limit exceeded
Memory unavailable
Bounds violation
Protection error
Arithmetic error
Time overrun
I/O failure
Invalid instruction
Privileged instruction
Data misuse
Operator or OS intervention
Parent termination.
38. What are the reasons for process suspension?
swapping
interactive user request
timing
parent process request
39. What is process migration?
It is the transfer of sufficient amount of the state of process from one machine to the target machine
40. What is mutant?
In Windows NT a mutant provides kernel mode or user mode mutual exclusion with the notion of ownership.
41. What is an idle thread?
The special thread a dispatcher will execute when no ready thread is found.
42. What is FtDisk?
It is a fault tolerance disk driver for Windows NT.
43. What are the possible threads a thread can have?
Ready
Standby
Running
Waiting
Transition
Terminated.
44. What are rings in Windows NT?
Windows NT uses protection mechanism called rings provides by the process to implement separation between the user mode and kernel mode.
45. What is Executive in Windows NT?
In Windows NT, executive refers to the operating system code that runs in kernel mode.
46. What are the sub-components of I/O manager in Windows NT?
Network redirector/ Server
Cache manager.
File systems
Network driver
Device driver
47. What are DDks? Name an operating system that includes this feature.
DDks are device driver kits, which are equivalent to SDKs for writing device drivers. Windows NT includes DDks.
48. What level of security does Windows NT meets
C2 level security.
Tuesday, June 30, 2009
TOP 5 H-R Questions
Q-->Tell me about yourself.
ANS-->TRAPS: Beware, about 80% of all interviews begin with this “innocent” question. Many candidates, unprepared for the question, skewer themselves by rambling, recapping their life story, delving into ancient work history or personal matters.
BEST ANSWER: Start with the present and tell why you are well qualified for the position. Remember that the key to all successful interviewing is to match your qualifications to what the interviewer is looking for. In other words you must sell what the buyer is buying. This is the single most important strategy in job hunting.
So, before you answer this or any question it's imperative that you try to uncover your interviewer's greatest need, want, problem or goal.
To do so, make you take these two steps:
1. Do all the homework you can before the interview to uncover this person's wants and needs (not the generalized needs of the industry or company)
2. As early as you can in the interview, ask for a more complete description of what the position entails. You might say: “I have a number of accomplishments I'd like to tell you about, but I want to make the best use of our time together and talk directly to your needs. To help me do, that, could you tell me more about the most important priorities of this position? All I know is what I (heard from the recruiter, read in the classified ad, etc.)”
Then, ALWAYS follow-up with a second and possibly, third question, to draw out his needs even more. Surprisingly, it's usually this second or third question that unearths what the interviewer is most looking for.
You might ask simply, "And in addition to that?..." or, "Is there anything else you see as essential to success in this position?:
This process will not feel easy or natural at first, because it is easier simply to answer questions, but only if you uncover the employer's wants and needs will your answers make the most sense. Practice asking these key questions before giving your answers, the process will feel more natural and you will be light years ahead of the other job candidates you're competing with.
After uncovering what the employer is looking for, describe why the needs of this job bear striking parallels to tasks you've succeeded at before. Be sure to illustrate with specific examples of your responsibilities and especially your achievements, all of which are geared to present yourself as a perfect match for the needs he has just described.
Q-->What are your greatest strengths?
TRAPS: This question seems like a softball lob, but be prepared. You don't want to come across as egotistical or arrogant. Neither is this a time to be humble.
BEST ANSWER: You know that your key strategy is to first uncover your interviewer's greatest wants and needs before you answer questions. And from Question 1, you know how to do this.
Prior to any interview, you should have a list mentally prepared of your greatest strengths. You should also have, a specific example or two, which illustrates each strength, an example chosen from your most recent and most impressive achievements.
You should, have this list of your greatest strengths and corresponding examples from your achievements so well committed to memory that you can recite them cold after being shaken awake at 2:30AM.
Then, once you uncover your interviewer's greatest wants and needs, you can choose those achievements from your list that best match up.
As a general guideline, the 10 most desirable traits that all employers love to see in their employees are:
1. A proven track record as an achiever...especially if your achievements match up with the employer's greatest wants and needs.
2. Intelligence...management "savvy".
3. Honesty...integrity...a decent human being.
4. Good fit with corporate culture...someone to feel comfortable with...a team player who meshes well with interviewer's team.
5. Likeability...positive attitude...sense of humor.
6. Good communication skills.
7. Dedication...willingness to walk the extra mile to achieve excellence.
8. Definiteness of purpose...clear goals.
9. Enthusiasm...high level of motivation.
10. Confident...healthy...a leader.
Q-->Why should I hire you?
ANS-->
TRAPS: Believe it or not, this is a killer question because so many candidates are unprepared for it. If you stammer or adlib you’ve blown it.
BEST ANSWER: By now you can see how critical it is to apply the overall strategy of uncovering the employer’s needs before you answer questions. If you know the employer’s greatest needs and desires, this question will give you a big leg up over other candidates because you will give him better reasons for hiring you than anyone else is likely to…reasons tied directly to his needs.
Whether your interviewer asks you this question explicitly or not, this is the most important question of your interview because he must answer this question favorably in is own mind before you will be hired. So help him out! Walk through each of the position’s requirements as you understand them, and follow each with a reason why you meet that requirement so well.
Example: “As I understand your needs, you are first and foremost looking for someone who can manage the sales and marketing of your book publishing division. As you’ve said you need someone with a strong background in trade book sales. This is where I’ve spent almost all of my career, so I’ve chalked up 18 years of experience exactly in this area. I believe that I know the right contacts, methods, principles, and successful management techniques as well as any person can in our industry.”
“You also need someone who can expand your book distribution channels. In my prior post, my innovative promotional ideas doubled, then tripled, the number of outlets selling our books. I’m confident I can do the same for you.”
“You need someone to give a new shot in the arm to your mail order sales, someone who knows how to sell in space and direct mail media. Here, too, I believe I have exactly the experience you need. In the last five years, I’ve increased our mail order book sales from $600,000 to $2,800,000, and now we’re the country’s second leading marketer of scientific and medical books by mail.” Etc., etc., etc.,
Every one of these selling “couplets” (his need matched by your qualifications) is a touchdown that runs up your score. IT is your best opportunity to outsell your competition.
Q-->Where do you see yourself five years from now?
ANS-->TRAPS: One reason interviewers ask this question is to see if you’re settling for this position, using it merely as a stopover until something better comes along. Or they could be trying to gauge your level of ambition.
If you’re too specific, i.e., naming the promotions you someday hope to win, you’ll sound presumptuous. If you’re too vague, you’ll seem rudderless.
BEST ANSWER: Reassure your interviewer that you’re looking to make a long-term commitment…that this position entails exactly what you’re looking to do and what you do extremely well. As for your future, you believe that if you perform each job at hand with excellence, future opportunities will take care of themselves.
Example: “I am definitely interested in making a long-term commitment to my next position. Judging by what you’ve told me about this position, it’s exactly what I’m looking for and what I am very well qualified to do. In terms of my future career path, I’m confident that if I do my work with excellence, opportunities will inevitable open up for me. It’s always been that way in my career, and I’m confident I’ll have similar opportunities here.”
Q-->What are your greatest weaknesses?
TRAPS: Beware - this is an eliminator question, designed to shorten the candidate list. Any admission of a weakness or fault will earn you an “A” for honesty, but an “F” for the interview.
PASSABLE ANSWER: Disguise a strength as a weakness.
Example: “I sometimes push my people too hard. I like to work with a sense of urgency and everyone is not always on the same wavelength.”
Drawback: This strategy is better than admitting a flaw, but it's so widely used, it is transparent to any experienced interviewer.
BEST ANSWER: (and another reason it's so important to get a thorough description of your interviewer's needs before you answer questions): Assure the interviewer that you can think of nothing that would stand in the way of your performing in this position with excellence. Then, quickly review you strongest qualifications.
Example: “Nobody's perfect, but based on what you've told me about this position, I believe I' d make an outstanding match. I know that when I hire people, I look for two things most of all. Do they have the qualifications to do the job well, and the motivation to do it well? Everything in my background shows I have both the qualifications and a strong desire to achieve excellence in whatever I take on. So I can say in all honesty that I see nothing that would cause you even a small concern about my ability or my strong desire to perform this job with excellence.”
Alternate strategy (if you don't yet know enough about the position to talk about such a perfect fit):
Instead of confessing a weakness, describe what you like most and like least, making sure that what you like most matches up with the most important qualification for success in the position, and what you like least is not essential.
Example: Let's say you're applying for a teaching position. “If given a choice, I like to spend as much time as possible in front of my prospects selling, as opposed to shuffling paperwork back at the office. Of course, I long ago learned the importance of filing paperwork properly, and I do it conscientiously. But what I really love to do is sell (if your interviewer were a sales manager, this should be music to his ears.)
ANS-->
ANS-->TRAPS: Beware, about 80% of all interviews begin with this “innocent” question. Many candidates, unprepared for the question, skewer themselves by rambling, recapping their life story, delving into ancient work history or personal matters.
BEST ANSWER: Start with the present and tell why you are well qualified for the position. Remember that the key to all successful interviewing is to match your qualifications to what the interviewer is looking for. In other words you must sell what the buyer is buying. This is the single most important strategy in job hunting.
So, before you answer this or any question it's imperative that you try to uncover your interviewer's greatest need, want, problem or goal.
To do so, make you take these two steps:
1. Do all the homework you can before the interview to uncover this person's wants and needs (not the generalized needs of the industry or company)
2. As early as you can in the interview, ask for a more complete description of what the position entails. You might say: “I have a number of accomplishments I'd like to tell you about, but I want to make the best use of our time together and talk directly to your needs. To help me do, that, could you tell me more about the most important priorities of this position? All I know is what I (heard from the recruiter, read in the classified ad, etc.)”
Then, ALWAYS follow-up with a second and possibly, third question, to draw out his needs even more. Surprisingly, it's usually this second or third question that unearths what the interviewer is most looking for.
You might ask simply, "And in addition to that?..." or, "Is there anything else you see as essential to success in this position?:
This process will not feel easy or natural at first, because it is easier simply to answer questions, but only if you uncover the employer's wants and needs will your answers make the most sense. Practice asking these key questions before giving your answers, the process will feel more natural and you will be light years ahead of the other job candidates you're competing with.
After uncovering what the employer is looking for, describe why the needs of this job bear striking parallels to tasks you've succeeded at before. Be sure to illustrate with specific examples of your responsibilities and especially your achievements, all of which are geared to present yourself as a perfect match for the needs he has just described.
Q-->What are your greatest strengths?
TRAPS: This question seems like a softball lob, but be prepared. You don't want to come across as egotistical or arrogant. Neither is this a time to be humble.
BEST ANSWER: You know that your key strategy is to first uncover your interviewer's greatest wants and needs before you answer questions. And from Question 1, you know how to do this.
Prior to any interview, you should have a list mentally prepared of your greatest strengths. You should also have, a specific example or two, which illustrates each strength, an example chosen from your most recent and most impressive achievements.
You should, have this list of your greatest strengths and corresponding examples from your achievements so well committed to memory that you can recite them cold after being shaken awake at 2:30AM.
Then, once you uncover your interviewer's greatest wants and needs, you can choose those achievements from your list that best match up.
As a general guideline, the 10 most desirable traits that all employers love to see in their employees are:
1. A proven track record as an achiever...especially if your achievements match up with the employer's greatest wants and needs.
2. Intelligence...management "savvy".
3. Honesty...integrity...a decent human being.
4. Good fit with corporate culture...someone to feel comfortable with...a team player who meshes well with interviewer's team.
5. Likeability...positive attitude...sense of humor.
6. Good communication skills.
7. Dedication...willingness to walk the extra mile to achieve excellence.
8. Definiteness of purpose...clear goals.
9. Enthusiasm...high level of motivation.
10. Confident...healthy...a leader.
Q-->Why should I hire you?
ANS-->
TRAPS: Believe it or not, this is a killer question because so many candidates are unprepared for it. If you stammer or adlib you’ve blown it.
BEST ANSWER: By now you can see how critical it is to apply the overall strategy of uncovering the employer’s needs before you answer questions. If you know the employer’s greatest needs and desires, this question will give you a big leg up over other candidates because you will give him better reasons for hiring you than anyone else is likely to…reasons tied directly to his needs.
Whether your interviewer asks you this question explicitly or not, this is the most important question of your interview because he must answer this question favorably in is own mind before you will be hired. So help him out! Walk through each of the position’s requirements as you understand them, and follow each with a reason why you meet that requirement so well.
Example: “As I understand your needs, you are first and foremost looking for someone who can manage the sales and marketing of your book publishing division. As you’ve said you need someone with a strong background in trade book sales. This is where I’ve spent almost all of my career, so I’ve chalked up 18 years of experience exactly in this area. I believe that I know the right contacts, methods, principles, and successful management techniques as well as any person can in our industry.”
“You also need someone who can expand your book distribution channels. In my prior post, my innovative promotional ideas doubled, then tripled, the number of outlets selling our books. I’m confident I can do the same for you.”
“You need someone to give a new shot in the arm to your mail order sales, someone who knows how to sell in space and direct mail media. Here, too, I believe I have exactly the experience you need. In the last five years, I’ve increased our mail order book sales from $600,000 to $2,800,000, and now we’re the country’s second leading marketer of scientific and medical books by mail.” Etc., etc., etc.,
Every one of these selling “couplets” (his need matched by your qualifications) is a touchdown that runs up your score. IT is your best opportunity to outsell your competition.
Q-->Where do you see yourself five years from now?
ANS-->TRAPS: One reason interviewers ask this question is to see if you’re settling for this position, using it merely as a stopover until something better comes along. Or they could be trying to gauge your level of ambition.
If you’re too specific, i.e., naming the promotions you someday hope to win, you’ll sound presumptuous. If you’re too vague, you’ll seem rudderless.
BEST ANSWER: Reassure your interviewer that you’re looking to make a long-term commitment…that this position entails exactly what you’re looking to do and what you do extremely well. As for your future, you believe that if you perform each job at hand with excellence, future opportunities will take care of themselves.
Example: “I am definitely interested in making a long-term commitment to my next position. Judging by what you’ve told me about this position, it’s exactly what I’m looking for and what I am very well qualified to do. In terms of my future career path, I’m confident that if I do my work with excellence, opportunities will inevitable open up for me. It’s always been that way in my career, and I’m confident I’ll have similar opportunities here.”
Q-->What are your greatest weaknesses?
TRAPS: Beware - this is an eliminator question, designed to shorten the candidate list. Any admission of a weakness or fault will earn you an “A” for honesty, but an “F” for the interview.
PASSABLE ANSWER: Disguise a strength as a weakness.
Example: “I sometimes push my people too hard. I like to work with a sense of urgency and everyone is not always on the same wavelength.”
Drawback: This strategy is better than admitting a flaw, but it's so widely used, it is transparent to any experienced interviewer.
BEST ANSWER: (and another reason it's so important to get a thorough description of your interviewer's needs before you answer questions): Assure the interviewer that you can think of nothing that would stand in the way of your performing in this position with excellence. Then, quickly review you strongest qualifications.
Example: “Nobody's perfect, but based on what you've told me about this position, I believe I' d make an outstanding match. I know that when I hire people, I look for two things most of all. Do they have the qualifications to do the job well, and the motivation to do it well? Everything in my background shows I have both the qualifications and a strong desire to achieve excellence in whatever I take on. So I can say in all honesty that I see nothing that would cause you even a small concern about my ability or my strong desire to perform this job with excellence.”
Alternate strategy (if you don't yet know enough about the position to talk about such a perfect fit):
Instead of confessing a weakness, describe what you like most and like least, making sure that what you like most matches up with the most important qualification for success in the position, and what you like least is not essential.
Example: Let's say you're applying for a teaching position. “If given a choice, I like to spend as much time as possible in front of my prospects selling, as opposed to shuffling paperwork back at the office. Of course, I long ago learned the importance of filing paperwork properly, and I do it conscientiously. But what I really love to do is sell (if your interviewer were a sales manager, this should be music to his ears.)
ANS-->
Hindi Shayari(Poem)
Aaj To Hum Maut Ki Dua Kar Ke Roye Hain
Dobara Aaj Khuda Se Gila Kar Ke Roye Hain
Kyon Na Likh Saka Tu Us Ko Taqdeer Mein Meri
Yeh Aik Khayal Soch Kar Phir Hum Roye Hain.
Sapne Ki Tarah Aakar Chale Gaye
Gamo Ki Neend Sulakar Chale Gaye
Kis Bhool Ki Saza Di Humko??
Pehle Hasaya Aur Fir Rulakar Chale Gaye. Hum ko to muskranay ki Aadat si hai
Ansoon ko Chupanay ki Aadat si hai
Duwa na hi Dawa Kaam kerti Hai hum per..
Ab to Zakhm Khanay ki Aadat si Hai..
Paane se khone ka maza aur hai
Bandh aankhon main rone ka maza aur hai
Aansoo bane lafz aur lafz bane ghazal
aur uss ghazal main tere hone ka maza aur hai
Dobara Aaj Khuda Se Gila Kar Ke Roye Hain
Kyon Na Likh Saka Tu Us Ko Taqdeer Mein Meri
Yeh Aik Khayal Soch Kar Phir Hum Roye Hain.
Sapne Ki Tarah Aakar Chale Gaye
Gamo Ki Neend Sulakar Chale Gaye
Kis Bhool Ki Saza Di Humko??
Pehle Hasaya Aur Fir Rulakar Chale Gaye. Hum ko to muskranay ki Aadat si hai
Ansoon ko Chupanay ki Aadat si hai
Duwa na hi Dawa Kaam kerti Hai hum per..
Ab to Zakhm Khanay ki Aadat si Hai..
Paane se khone ka maza aur hai
Bandh aankhon main rone ka maza aur hai
Aansoo bane lafz aur lafz bane ghazal
aur uss ghazal main tere hone ka maza aur hai
Monday, June 8, 2009
Kanha National Park (Wildlife Sanctuary)Jabalpur
'''Kanha National Park'''
It is a [[National park of India|national park]] and a Tiger Reserve in the [[Mandla]] and [[Balaghat]] districts of [[Madhya Pradesh]], [[India]]. In the 1930s, Kanha area was divided into two sanctuaries, Hallon and Banjar, of 250 and 300 km² each. Kanha National Park was created on [[1 June]] [[1955]]. Today it stretches over an area of 940 km² in the two districts [[Mandla]] and [[Balaghat]]. Together with a surrounding buffer zone of 1009 km² and the neighboring 110 km² Phen Sanctuary it forms the Kanha Tiger Reserve. The park has a significant population of [[Royal Bengal Tiger]], [[leopard]]s, the [[sloth bear]], [[Barasingha]] and [[Dhole|Indian wild dog]].
Flora ==
The lowland forest is a mixture of [[sal]] (''shorea robusta'') and other mixed forest trees, interspersed with meadows. The highland forests are tropical moist dry deciduous type and of a completely different nature with bamboo on slopes (''dendrocalamus strictus''). A very good looking Indian ghost tree (kullu) can also be seen in the dense.
Kanha Tiger Reserve abounds in meadows or ''maidans'' which are basically open grasslands that have sprung up in fields of abundant villages, evacuated to make way for the animals. Kanha meadow is one such example. There are many species of grass recorded at Kanha some of which are important for the survival of [[Barasingha]] (''Cervus duvauceli branderi''). Dense forested zones with good crown cover has abundant species of climbers, shrubs and herbs flourishing in the understory. Aquatic plants in numerous "tal" (lakes) are life line for migratory and wetland species of birds.
== Transportation & facility==
Jabalpur has the nearest Aerodrome (169 K.M.) which is connected with Delhi, Mumbai, and bhopal. Mandla (70 K.M.) is well connected with Kanha,
[[Mandla]] has sports clubs, Internet cafes, guides, churches (Catholic + Protestant) and hundreds of beautiful temples around the city.
There are three gates for entrance into the forest. The Kisli gate is best accessible from Jabalpur. The Kisli gate stops at village Khatia which comes inside the buffer area. The second gate is Mukki. The third and recently opened gate is Serai gate.
=== General information ===
* Area: (core) 940 km²
* Terrain: sal and bamboo forests, plateaus, meadows and meandering streams
* Best Season: February to June
* Morning Visiting Hours: 630Hrs to 1200Hrs
* Evening Visiting Hours: 1500Hrs to 1800Hrs
* Closed: [[1 July]] to [[30 September]]
The nearest airport and railhead is at [[Jabalpur]and [Nagpur]] (160 km, 3 hours by road from Jabalpur and 260 km, 6 hrs from Nagpur).
== General References ==
* K. K. Gurung & Raj Singh: ''Field Guide to the Mammals of the Indian Subcontinent'', Academic Press, San Diego, ISBN 0-12-309350-3
* A. P. Dwivendi: ''Protected Areas of Madhya Pradesh'',Government printing Press, Bhopal 2003
== External links ==
=== Photos ===
* [http://travel.webshots.com/album/557880001efIMUh Kanha National Park Photo Gallery]
* [http://www.flickr.com/photos/sachinrai/sets/72157594478736117/ Kanha National Park Photos on Flickr]
http://picasaweb.google.com/purvimistry/KanhaNPMAY2008?feat=directlink
=== Info on Kanha National Park ===
* [http://www.webhush.com/kanha-national-park-madhya-pradesh/ Kanha National Park - Madhya Pradesh]
* [http://www.wildlifetimes.com/forums/viewtopic.php?t=246 Wildlife Times: The Central Indian Tiger Pilgrimage - A trip report]
* [http://www.kanha-national-park.com Kanha National Park]
* [http://www.pgoimages.com/g_india_kanha.php Images from Kanha National Park]
* [http://www.unep-wcmc.org/igcmc/s_sheets/madhaya_/0115v.html UNEP World Conservation Monitoring Centre]{{dead link|date=January 2008|url=http://www.unep-wcmc.org/igcmc/s_sheets/madhaya_/0115v.html}}
* [http://www.mptourism.com/dest/kanha.html Madhya Pradesh State Tourism]
* [http://www.indiatouristspots.com/wildlife/kanha-national-park.html Kanha National Park]
* [http://www.dharssi.org.uk/travel/india/kanha_wildlife_park.html Photos and travel tips for Kanha national park]
* [http://www.ankurverma.ws/thumbnails.php?album=3 Travel Gallery from 2003 Trip]
* [http://www.geocities.com/pateluday/kanha.htm Kanha Tiger Reserve]
* {{wikitravel}}
{{National Parks of India}}
[[Category:National parks in Madhya Pradesh]]
[[Category:Balaghat]]
[[Category:Mandla]]
[[de:Kanha-Nationalpark]]
[[hi:कान्हा राष्ट्रीय उद्यान]]
[[fr:Parc national de Kanha]]
[[it:Parco nazionale di Kanha]]
[[mr:कान्हा राष्ट्रीय उद्यान]]
official website::
http://www.kanha-national-park.com
Wednesday, March 18, 2009
java twister
Q:How to run the java program without using the main function ?
Ans: Yes,we can run our java program without using the main function see below:
class sachin
{
static
{
System.out.println("hello! how are you");
System.exit();
}
}
-->so ,by using the above code we can easily run our java program without main function.
Logic-->Actually,static block always executes bafore the main function since JVM firstly executes the static block and before the control goes to the main function we can make it exit by using System.exit() so in this way their is only one way to execute the java program without main ,another way is by using applet.
Ans: Yes,we can run our java program without using the main function see below:
class sachin
{
static
{
System.out.println("hello! how are you");
System.exit();
}
}
-->so ,by using the above code we can easily run our java program without main function.
Logic-->Actually,static block always executes bafore the main function since JVM firstly executes the static block and before the control goes to the main function we can make it exit by using System.exit() so in this way their is only one way to execute the java program without main ,another way is by using applet.
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